AY 101-001 Fall 1993 QUIZ #1 Answer each of the following on a computer-gradeable answer sheet. Be sure to fill in your name and student number (and blacken their circles as well). Write your seat number on a corner of the answer sheet. 1. Light-years are used to measure a) time. c) weight. B) DISTANCE. d) mass. 2. A first-quarter moon is best seen at a) sunrise. C) SUNSET. b) noon. d) midnight. 3. Total solar eclipses would be more frequent if a) the moon orbited further from the Earth. B) THE MOON ORBITED CLOSER TO THE EARTH. c) the moon's orbit were more highly inclined to the Earth's. d) the Earth had a smaller radius. 4. Ancient naked-eye observations and reasoning already provided a) a solid measurement of the Sun's distance. b) measurements of the sizes of stars. c) correct explanations for the retrograde motions of planets. D) A REASONABLE ESTIMATE OF THE EARTH'S SIZE. 5. A partial solar eclipse is best viewed a) directly through a telescope. B) BY PROJECTION WITH OR WITHOUT A TELESCOPE. c) through welder's goggles. d) after sunset. 6. To locate an object in the sky, we use a) latitude and longitude. c) parallax. B) RIGHT ASCENSION AND DECLINATION. d) the local standard of rest. 7. Seasons occur because of a) our changing distance from the Sun. b) precession of the equinoxes. C) THE ANGLE BETWEEN THE EARTH"S EQUATOR AND ITS ORBIT. d) the Moon's gravitational influence. 8. We see the moon appear to show phases caused by a) the shadow of the Earth. B) OUR VIEWING DIRECTION COMPARED TO THE DIRECTION OF SUNLIGHT. c) its tidally locked rotation. d) its own irregular shape. 9. Different stars are visible in the night sky at different times of the year a) because of the Moon's motion about the Earth. b) because of our rotation on the Earth's axis. C) BECAUSE OF OUR ORBITAL MOTION ABOUT THE SUN. d) because of precession of the Earth's axis. 10. Constellations in astronomy are A) ARBITRARY BUT USEFUL SUBDIVISIONS OF THE SKY. b) physical grouping of genuinely associated stars. c) defined only in those areas where we sometimes see the Moon and planets. d) a way of memorializing famous astronomers. _______________________________________________________________________________ AY 101-001 Fall 1993 QUIZ #2 Answer each of the following on a computer-gradeable answer sheet. Be sure to fill in your name and student number (and blacken their circles as well). Write your seat number on a corner of the answer sheet. 1. A primary function of an astronomical telescope is a) magnification. C) LIGHT GRASP. b) wavelength interference. d) looking official. 2. The spectrum of a hot gas, seen by itself, will show a) absorption lines. c) a blue continuum. B) EMISSION LINES. d) both continuum and absorption lines. 3. Objects in orbit undergo weightlessness because A) THEY ARE ALREADY FALLING. b) they are beyond the range of Earth's gravity. c) their mass has changed. d) of an optical illusion. 4. Tides, for example those that the Moon produces on Earth, a) raise a single massive bulge toward the Moon. b) affect only water, and no other substances. C) HAVE TWO BULGES, TOWARD AND AWAY FROM THE MOON. d) gotta roll. 5. Kepler's three laws describe A) THE MOTION OF PLANETS AROUND THE SUN. c) epicycles and deferents. b) the motion of stars through the sky. d) a geocentric system. 6. Which of the following did Galileo observe and use as a demonstration of Copernicus' scheme for the solar system? a) Stars in the Milky Way. b) Sunspots. C) A COMPLETE CYCLE OF PHASES FOR VENUS. d) Rings around Saturn. 7. Planets orbit the Sun along a) circles. B) ELLIPSES. c) hyperbolae. d) logarithmic spirals. 8. Which kind of radiation moves fastest through empty space? a) visible light. b) gamma rays. c) infrared radiation. D) NONE OF THESE. 9. The properties of so-called blackbody radiation mean that, as an object goes from cooler to hotter temperatures, its most intense radiation a) remains at the same wavelength. b) moves from bluer to redder (longer) wavelengths. C) MOVES FROM REDDER TO BLUER (SHORTER) WAVELENGTHS. d) becomes dimmer for higher temperatures. 10. The Doppler shift can be used to measure a) a distant object's chemical composition. b) an object's true velocity through space. C) AN OBJECT'S VELOCITY ALONG OUR LINE OF SIGHT. d) our absolute position in the Universe. _______________________________________________________________________________ AY 101-001 Spring 1994 QUIZ #3 Answer each of the following on a computer-gradeable answer sheet. Be sure to fill in your name and student number (and blacken their circles as well). Write your seat number on a corner of the answer sheet. 1. We can find the coolest stars (that's still about 2000 degrees!) using a) ultraviolet radiation. C) INFRARED RADIATION. b) X-rays. d) visible light. 2. The main reason for constructing larger telescopes is improvement in a) resolution. c) wavelength coverage. B) LIGHT GRASP. d) field of view. 3. Most lunar craters are results of A) METEOR IMPACTS. c) karst subsidence. b) volcanic eruptions. d) lava bubbles. 4. The ozone layer in our atmosphere a) produces ultraviolet radiation. c) absorbs infrared radiation. B) BLOCKS ULTRAVIOLET RADIATION. d) reflects radio waves. 5. Our atmosphere absorbs infrared light effectively, giving rise to A) THE GREENHOUSE EFFECT. c) seasons. b) the ozone layer. d) clouds. 6. Plate tectonics involves a) rising and falling of land due to changes in the water table. b) atmospheric circulation in the stratosphere. C) MOTIONS OF LARGE BLOCKS OF THE EARTH'S CRUST. d) motions driven by solar heating. 7. The lunar maria are most like A) LAVA FLOWS. c) lake beds. b) sand dunes. d) rain forests. 8. Instruments at the Earth's surface can be used to measure celestial a) X-rays. C) RADIO EMISSION. b) ultraviolet radiation. d) far-infrared radiation. 9. The Moon's rotation is notable in that a) it does not rotate. B) IT ROTATES ONCE PER ORBIT ABOUT THE EARTH. c) it rotates once per orbit about the Sun. d) it rotates in the opposite direction as does the Earth. 10. Motions in the Earth's atmosphere are ultimately powered by a) internal heat and radioactive decay within the Earth. b) the Coriolis effect. c) the ozone layer. D) ABSORPTION OF SOLAR ENERGY. _______________________________________________________________________________ AY 101-001 Spring 1994 QUIZ #4 Answer each of the following on a computer-gradeable answer sheet. Be sure to fill in your name and student number (and blacken their circles as well). Write your seat number on a corner of the answer sheet. 1. The atmospheric temperature of Venus is so high because of a) its sheer proximity to the Sun. c) volcanic activity. B) A RUNAWAY GREENHOUSE EFFECT. d) wind friction. 2. The canals of Mars turned out to be a) thoat tracks. c) river valleys. B) OPTICAL ILLUSIONS. d) shadows of the Martian moons. 3. Surface features on Venus are known only through the use of A) RADAR. c) X-rays. b) infrared cameras. d) emission lines. 4. Mars has much larger volcanoes than does the Earth, apparently due to a) the tidal forces of Mars' two moons. b) Mars being a younger planet. C) PLATE TECTONICS SMEARING OUT SUCH FEATURES ON EARTH. d) Mars being an older planet. 5. The atmospheres of both Mars and Venus are unlike that of the Earth in a) being almost entirely free oxygen. b) being completely transparent to sunlight. C) BEING DOMINATED BY CARBON DIOXIDE. d) supporting no storms or winds. 7. Evidence that Mars was once a wetter place than it is now comes from a) the amount of frozen water in its polar caps. B) CHANNELS AND BADLANDS APPARENTLY CUT BY RUNNING WATER. c) fossils of prehistoric Martian plants. d) subsurface water dug up by the Viking landers. 7. A recent surprise in the study of Mercury has been A) RADAR DISCOVERY OF POLAR CAPS. b) radar discovery of active volcanos. c) the discovery that it undergoes retrograde rotation. d) recognition of a significant greenhouse effect. 8. Small rocky worlds (like the Earth) are generally found A) CLOSER TO THE SUN THAN GAS GIANTS LIKE JUPITER. b) farther from the Sun than gas giants like Jupiter. c) interspersed between gas giants. d) between the orbits of Jupiter and Saturn. 9. The cycle of plate tectonics has been found a) on all terrestrial planets. b) on Venus and Earth. c) on Earth and Mars. D) ONLY ON EARTH. 10. The polar regions of Mars exhibit a) permanent cloud caps. b) large, deep craters. C) DRY-ICE AND WATER-ICE POLAR CAPS. d) huge volcanic mountains. ________________________________________________________________________________ AY 101-001 Spring 1994 QUIZ #5 Answer each of the following on a computer-gradeable answer sheet. Be sure to fill in your name and student number (and blacken their circles as well). Write your seat number on a corner of the answer sheet. 1. Small deviations from a planet's expected orbit led to the discovery of a) Ceres. C) NEPTUNE. b) Uranus. d) Pluto. 2. We would expect to see the most extreme seasonal changes in the atmosphere of a) Jupiter. C) URANUS. b) Saturn. d) Neptune. 3. Jupiter's Great Red Spot is basically A) A LARGE, LONG-LASTING STORM. c) produced by comet impact. b) a volcanic feature. d) a window to the solid surface. 4. The direction of a comet's tail tells us a) which way the comet's moving. B) WHICH WAY THE SUN IS FROM THE COMET. c) what it is made of. d) whether the comet has produced a meteor shower. 5. Understanding Pluto's history is uniquely interesting because of a) its volcanic surface. b) the fact that it has a satellite. C) ITS UNUSUALLY ECCENTRIC ORBIT. d) Triton's retrograde orbit. 6. Most minor planets have orbits a) aligned with Jupiter's orbit. B) BETWEEN MARS AND JUPITER. c) between Earth and Mars. d) ranging between the orbits of Jupiter and Saturn. 7. Saturn's ring system is so thin because of a) the Roche limit. b) resonances with satellite orbits. C) COLLISIONS AMONG RING PARTICLES. d) Saturn's magnetic field. 8. Hydrogen and helium are the primary constituents of a) terrestrial planets. c) minor planets. B) GIANT PLANETS. d) planetary satellites. 9. Which of these has not been taken as evidence for catastrophic events in the early solar system? A) JUPITER'S INTERNAL HEAT SOURCE. b) the off-center magnetic field of Neptune. c) the tilted magnetic field of Uranus. d) the large tilt of the axis of Uranus. 10. Jupiter's large satellite Io is notable for a) its cratered, icy surface. C) ITS SULFUR VOLCANOS. b) open water on the surface. d) shepherding Jupiter's ring. _______________________________________________________________________________ AY 101-001 Spring 1994 QUIZ #6 Answer each of the following on a computer-gradeable answer sheet. Be sure to fill in your name and student number (and blacken their circles as well). Write your seat number on a corner of the answer sheet. For the first 4 questions, choose among a) interstellar dust grains b) ionized gas c) atomic (neutral) hydrogen gas d) molecular gas 1. Which is seen only at 21-cm radio wavelengths? C 2. Which may be seen by the infrared radiation it emits? A 3. Which do we see in many visible-light nebulae? B 4. Which is the immediate precursor to star formation? D 5. The Sun's core produces energy from A) FUSION OF HYDROGEN INTO HELIUM. b) fission of helium into hydrogen. c) fusion of iron to heavier elements. d) the CNO catalytic cycle. 6. The Hertzsprung-Russell diagram distinguishes among a) stars of different apparent magnitudes. b) stars of different parallax values. c) members of binary star systems and others. D) STARS OF DIFFERENT MASSES AND AGES. 7. To tell how bright a star really is, we need to know its a) apparent magnitude and diameter. B) APPARENT MAGNITUDE AND DISTANCE. c) apparent magnitude and proper motion. d) proper motion and radial velocity. 8. Parallax (or trigonometric parallax) works by comparing A) THE SIZE OF THE EARTH'S ORBIT TO A STAR'S DISTANCE. b) the rate of the Sun's motion to that of the star. c) the speed of the Earth's motion with that of light. d) the size of the Earth's orbit to a star's diameter. 9. To measure the masses of distant stars, we are best off looking for a) supernovae. c) neutron stars. B) BINARY STARS. d) statistical parallax. 10. The highest temperature of any observable part of the Sun is in a) the solar photosphere. C) THE SOLAR CORONA. b) the solar chromosphere. d) the solar wind. _______________________________________________________________________________ AY 101-001 Spring 1994 QUIZ #7 Answer each of the following on a computer-gradeable answer sheet. Be sure to fill in your name and student number (and blacken their circles as well). Write your seat number on a corner of the answer sheet. 1. We see a planetary nebula a) when a newly formed star first becomes visible through its clearing dust. b) when hydrogen fusion begins in a main-sequence star. c) when a star first leaves the main sequence to become a red giant. D) WHEN A STAR FINISHES ITS RED-GIANT STAGE. 2. The most common kind of star is A) A RED DWARF. c) a blue giant. b) a red giant. d) a pulsar. 3. Stars are formed A) FROM COLLAPSE AND FRAGMENTATION OF MOLECULAR CLOUDS. b) from the debris of supernova explosions. c) from ionized gas. d) one at a time. 4. A red giant may be producing energy via a) hydrogen-helium fusion. c) the CNO cycle. B) HELIUM-CARBON FUSION. d) thermal conduction. 5. The central star of a planetary nebula a) is a young, newly formed object. B) IS THE REMNANT CORE OF WHAT WAS ONCE A RED GIANT STAR. c) pulsates following the Cepheid period-luminosity law. d) is among the coolest stars known. 6. If they exist, brown dwarfs are A) TOO SMALL TO INITIATE HYDROGEN FUSION. b) the aftermath of red giant contraction. c) among the youngest protostars. d) expected to pair with white dwarfs rather than each other. 7. Stars in a cluster provide a test of stellar evolution because a) they all have the same mass. b) they all have the same size. c) they all have the same motion. D) THEY ALL HAVE THE SAME AGE. 8. We must observe the earliest stages of a star's life a) in the ultraviolet range. b) using visible light. C) IN THE INFRARED. d) via neutrino emission. 9. The longest-lasting stars should be a) blue supergiants. c) red giants. b) yellow dwarfs. D) RED DWARFS. 10. Compared to its main-sequence properties, a star as a red giant has a) a cooler core and cooler surface. B) A HOTTER CORE AND COOLER SURFACE. c) a hotter core and hotter surface. d) a cooler core and hotter surface. _______________________________________________________________________________ AY 101-001 Spring 1994 QUIZ #8 Answer each of the following on a computer-gradeable answer sheet. Be sure to fill in your name and student number (and blacken their circles as well). Write your seat number on a corner of the answer sheet. 1. We can see white dwarfs because of a) their interior helium-carbon fusion. B) RADIATION OF THEIR STORED HEAT. c) twin beams of magnetically-directed radiation. d) their rapid pulsations. 2. A supernova explosion can be initiated by a) the helium flash. b) the beginning of oxygen burning in a massive star. c) instability in the atmosphere of a red giant. D) THE BUILDUP OF AN IRON CORE IN A MASSIVE STAR. 3. The "core bounce" in a type II supernova can be detected by its a) pulsed radio emission. C) FLASH OF NEUTRINOS. b) sudden pulse of gamma rays. d) bright flash of visible light. 4. A pulsar is a particular kind of a) white dwarf C) NEUTRON STAR. b) black hole. d) galactic nucleus. 5. Whether a star ends up as a black hole, neutron star, or white dwarf depends on its final a) chemical composition. c) rotation speed. B) MASS. d) age. 6. Planets have been inferred around a few pulsars based on A) CYCLOCAL CHANGES IN THE ARRIVAL TIMES OF THEIR PULSES. b) periodic interruptions of the radio pulses. c) observed disks of matter around the pulsars. d) the likely survival of planets after a supernova explosion. 7. The heaviest chemical elements are produced a) during a nova outburst. C) IN SUPERNOVA EXPLOSIONS. b) in pulsar magnetospheres. d) in interstellar clouds. 8. The link between neutron stars and supernovae was made when a) the 1987 supernova was observed in the Large Magellanic Cloud. B) A PULSAR WAS FOUND IN THE CRAB NEBULA, SITE OF THE 1054 SUPERNOVA. c) pulsars were identified as probable neutron stars. d) a binary pulsar was identified. 9. The primary advantage of the Hubble Space Telescope in visible light is A) LACK OF ATMOSPHERIC BLURRING. b) being closer to the stars than ground-based telescopes. c) the ability to follow one object for hours at a time. d) the extra light it receives from being above atmospheric absorption. 10. After the servicing mission, the Hubble telescope is the best way to a) measure the visible-light spectra of stars in great detail. b) detect X-rays from black-hole candidates. C) STUDY THE STRUCTURE OF GALAXIES FAR AWAY (AND LONG AGO). d) survey very large areas of the sky at once. _______________________________________________________________________________ AY 101-001 Fall 1994 QUIZ #9 Answer each of the following on a computer-gradeable answer sheet. Be sure to fill in your name and student number (and blacken their circles as well). Write your seat number on a corner of the answer sheet. 1. A pulsar is a particular kind of a) white dwarf C) NEUTRON STAR. b) black hole. d) galactic nucleus. 2. Whether a star ends up as a black hole, neutron star, or white dwarf depends on its final a) chemical composition. c) rotation speed. B) MASS. d) age. 3. Planets have been inferred around a few pulsars based on A) CYCLICAL CHANGES IN THE ARRIVAL TIMES OF THEIR PULSES. b) periodic interruptions of the radio pulses. c) observed disks of matter around the pulsars. d) the likely survival of planets after a supernova explosion. 4. The link between neutron stars and supernovae was made when a) the 1987 supernova was observed in the Large Magellanic Cloud. B) A PULSAR WAS FOUND IN THE CRAB NEBULA, SITE OF THE `054 SUPERNOVA. c) pulsars were identified as probable neutron stars. d) a binary pulsar was identified. 5. The evidence to date for the existence of black holes relies on a) Hawking radiation. b) the event horizon. c) gravitational redshifts. D) GRAVITATIONAL EFFECTS ON SURROUNDING OBJECTS. 6. We believe the Milky Way to be a spiral galaxy, based on a) the clear spiral pattern of nearby stars. B) THE OVERALL FLAT SHAPE AND ROTATION OF THE MILKY WAY. c) seeing a spiral pattern in proper motions of stars. d) the rapid star formation in the nuclear bulge. 7. The pulses of radiation from pulsars are thought to be produced a) from beams of radiation at the neutron star's rotation axis. b) from beams at the neutron star's equator. C) FROM BEAMS ALONG THE MAGNETIC FIELD OF THE NEUTRON STAR. d) by global pulsations of the neutron star. 8. Early attempts to estimate the size of the Milky Way were defeated by a) changes in its stellar content with location. B) INTERSTELLAR ABSORPTION BY DUST. c) the small size of their telescopes. d) the location of spiral arms. 9. Our location in the Milky Way is best described as a) near the center. c) in the outer halo. B) IN AN OUTER SPIRAL ARM. d) completely outside the galaxy. 10. Stars of population I are most easily found A) IN THE DISK. c) in globular clusters. b) in the central bulge. d) in very elongated orbits. ________________________________________________________________________________ AY 101-001 Fall 1993 QUIZ #10 Answer each of the following on a computer-gradeable answer sheet. Be sure to fill in your name and student number (and blacken their circles as well). Write your seat number on a corner of the answer sheet. 1. Very detailed observations of distant galaxies show that a) there were once many more ellipticals in clusters than we now see. B) THERE WERE ONCE MANY MORE SPIRALS IN CLUSTERS THAN WE NOW SEE. c) clusters once contained nearly all galaxies. d) that galaxies in clusters have always been as we see them now. 2. Radio galaxies stand out because of their a) brilliant cores. C) TWIN LOBES OF RADIO-EMITTING MATTER. b) spherical clouds of emitting gas. d) unusually prominent spiral arms. 3. The presence of a large central mass in Seyfert galaxies is inferred from a) proper motions of surrounding stars. c) their redshifts. b) jets of radio-emitting material. D) LARGE DOPPLER SHIFTS OF THEIR GAS. 4. The small size of the central "engine" in quasars is inferred from A) THE TIME IT TAKES THEIR BRIGHTNESS TO VARY. b) the fact that they look starlike. c) their intense radio emission. d) their large redshifts. 5. The long, straight radio jets emanating from some active galactic nuclei a) show material falling in toward the accretion disk. B) SUGGEST A "MEMORY" FOR THE DIRECTION OF THE CENTRAL SOURCE. c) disprove the black-hole hypothesis. d) are so rare as not to matter in explaining these objects. 6. Clusters of galaxies contain a substantial amount of A) HOT GAS AT A FEW MILLION DEGREES. c) molecular gas. b) cold neutral hydrogen. d) cockroaches. 7. Which of these does NOT suggest the presence of large halos of dark matter? a) motions of stars in galaxies. c) motions of galaxies in clusters. B) MOTIONS OF GAS IN QUASAR JETS. d) the rotation pattern of spirals. 8. Our local group's motion with respect to the Local Supercluster can be described as A) FALLING INWARD. c) showing no effect at all. b) a circular orbit. d) streaming outward. 9. A "typical" galaxy is A) DIM AND PART OF A GROUPING. c) luminous and isolated. b) dim and isolated. d) luminous and part of a group. 10. The standard picture for powering an active nucleus involves A) MASSIVE BLACK HOLES. c) neutron stars. b) dense star clusters. d) gravitational lensing. _______________________________________________________________________________ AY 101-001 Fall 1993 QUIZ #11 Answer each of the following on a computer-gradeable answer sheet. Be sure to fill in your name and student number (and blacken their circles as well). Write your seat number on a corner of the answer sheet. 1. At high redshifts, we see that quasars are A) MORE NUMEROUS THAN WE SEE LOCALLY. b) less numerous than we see locally. c) just as numerous as we see locally. d) virtually absent. 2. The redshift controversy deals largely with a) whether radio galaxies contain black holes. B) WHETHER QUASAR REDSHIFTS FOLLOW THE HUBBLE LAW. c) whether quasars are related to galaxies. d) Seyfert galaxies. 3. Superluminal radio sources contain structures that a) flare rapidly. C) APPEAR TO MOVE FASTER THAN LIGHT. b) appear to move slower than light. d) revolve around an unseen core. 4. Olbers' paradox uses the darkness of a night sky to show that a) the Universe is infinitely old and infinitely large. B) THE UNIVERSE CANNOT BE BOTH INFINITELY OLD AND INFINITELY LARGE. c) the Universe is expanding. d) we are at a central place in the Universe. 5. We can estimate the age of the expanding Universe from measurements of a) the deceleration parameter. C) THE HUBBLE CONSTANT. b) the critical density. d) galaxy masses. 6. Observations of the cosmic microwave background suggest that a) the Universe has always been much as we see it now. B) THE UNIVERSE WAS ONCE FAR SMOOTHER AND HOTTER THAN SEEN TODAY. c) the Universe was once far smoother and cooler than it is today. d) our galaxy is at rest with respect to the Universe at large. 7. The "Cosmological Principle" states that A) THE UNIVERSE, ON AVERAGE, LOOKS THE SAME FROM ALL PLACES. b) the Universe, on average, looks the same at all times. c) the Universe does not exist unless it is perceived. d) we can never know the average properties of the Universe. 8. Whether the expanding Universe will ever contract is determined by a) Olbers' paradox. C) THE AMOUNT OF MASS IN THE UNIVERSE. b) its age. d) the fraction of galaxies in clusters. 9. We can probe the early history of the Universe through direct observations a) only through the use of radio waves. b) since light does not change in intensity with distance. c) by finding "fossil" objects unchanged through cosmic history. D) THANKS TO THE FINITE SPEED OF LIGHT. 10. The "Perfect Cosmological Principle" appears to be contradicted by A) THE NUMBER OF QUASARS AT HIGH REDSHIFTS. b) the existence of galaxy clusters. c) the structure of our galaxy. d) no known observation.